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MedicalExam.json
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[
{
"raw_data": {
"id": 147,
"question": "A 26-year-old woman presents with purulent vaginal discharge, lower abdominal pain, and fever. She reports having engaged in unprotected sexual intercourse on multiple occasions. Physical examination reveals cervical motion tenderness, right adnexal tenderness, and bilateral abdominal tenderness. In light of this presentation, treatment with which of the following antimicrobial drug regimens should be initiated?",
"options": {
"A": " Acyclovir",
"B": " Ceftriaxone-azithromycin",
"C": " Metronidazole",
"D": " Penicillin",
"E": " Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole"
},
"answer_idx": "B",
"explaination": [
"The correct answer is B. 68% chose this. This patient presents with signs and symptoms consistent with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), which is caused most commonly by Chlamydia trachomatis and/or Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Azithromycin is a macrolide antibiotic and the first-line drug for treating chlamydia. Ceftriaxone is a third-generation cephaslosporin and the drug of choice for treating gonococcal infections. Although Chlamydia is the most common cause of PID, the two antibiotics are typically given together because of the high rate of coinfection with Chlamydia and N. gonorrhoeae.",
"A is not correct. 4% chose this. Acyclovir is an antiviral drug used to treat herpes simplex infections. Herpes simplex virus-2 (HSV-2) may cause genital herpes but would not account for the purulent vaginal discharge or signs and symptoms ofpelvic inflammatory disease seen in this patient.",
"C is not correct. 13% chose this. Metronidazole is the agent of choice for treating vaginitis caused by both Trichomonas vaginalis and Gardnerella vaginalis. These organisms cause vulvovaginitis, associated with genital pruritus and foul-smelling vaginal discharge, but would not cause the signs and symptoms of pelvic inflammatory disease seen in this patient.",
"D is not correct. 7% chose this. Penicillin is the treatment choice for syphilis infections caused by the spirochete Treponema pallidum. Syphilis is not a cause of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) and would therefore not present with the physical exam findings seen in this patient.",
"E is not correct. 8% chose this. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, also known as Bactrim, is the drug of choice for urinary tract infections (UTIs), typically caused by gram-negative organisms such as Escherichia coli. Sexually transmitteddiseases and UTIs may both present with dysuria, but a UTI would not cause purulent vaginal discharge or the signs and symptoms of pelvic inflammatory disease seen in this patient."
],
"bottom_line": "Bottom Line: PID is caused most commonly by C. trachomatis and/or N. gonorrhoeae. Treatment with both ceftriaxone and azithromycin is typically initiated in patients with PID because of the high rate of coinfection with the two organisms.",
"total_id": 269,
"type": "Reproductive"
},
"question": " In light of this presentation, treatment with which of the following antimicrobial drug regimens should be initiated?",
"gpt_extract_mdeical_info": "1. Patient's age: 26.\n2. Patient's gender: Female.\n3. Presenting symptoms: Purulent vaginal discharge, lower abdominal pain, and fever.\n4. Sexual behavior: Engaged in unprotected sexual intercourse on multiple occasions.\n5. Physical examination findings: Cervical motion tenderness, right adnexal tenderness, and bilateral abdominal tenderness.",
"medical_info_list": {
"Patient's age": "26.",
"Patient's gender": "Female.",
"Presenting symptoms": "Purulent vaginal discharge, lower abdominal pain, and fever.",
"Sexual behavior": "Engaged in unprotected sexual intercourse on multiple occasions.",
"Physical examination findings": "Cervical motion tenderness, right adnexal tenderness, and bilateral abdominal tenderness."
},
"dataset": "QMAX",
"id": 0,
"history": [
{
"doctor": "Hello, I'm your doctor. How can I help you today?",
"state": "O",
"patient": "I'm experiencing a bad vaginal discharge, lower abdominal pain, and a fever, especially after having unprotected sex."
}
]
},
{
"raw_data": {
"id": 90,
"question": "A 71-year-old man presents to his physician because of a 6-week history of progressive dyspnea, wheezing, and coughing. He has hypertension and a 60-pack-year history of smoking. The patient has difficulty speaking and is breathing using his accessory respiratory muscles. Neck vein distention and tongue swelling are evident. Which of the following is most likely diagnosis?",
"options": {
"A": " Gastric adenocarcinoma",
"B": " Hodgkin lymphoma",
"C": " Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy",
"D": " Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis",
"E": " Squamous cell carcinoma"
},
"answer_idx": "E",
"explaination": [
"Lung cancer is the leading malignant cause of superior vena cava syndrome (SVCS), as seen in this patient and demonstrated in the image. Compression of the superior vena cava leads to dilation of the venous collateral circulation and to head and neck edema. Although other malignancies can lead to SVCS, this patient's age and history of smoking make squamous cell carcinoma of the lung the most likely cause. Squamous cell lung carcinoma and small cell lung carcinoma demonstrate strong associations with smoking of 90% and 99%, respectively. Of note, the most common type of lung cancer in nonsmokers is adenocarcinoma of the lung",
"A is not correct. 4% chose this. Most cases of superior vena cava syndrome are attributed to mediastinal tumors or lymphomas, not to gastrointestinal cancers such as gastric adenocarcinoma.",
"B is not correct. 5% chose this. Lymphoma, particularly Hodgkin lymphoma, is the leading cause of superior vena cava syndrome in young adults. However, the age and medical history of this patient make this diagnosis unlikely.",
"C is not correct. 13% chose this. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) can manifeat as sudden death in young athletes as a result of expansion of the interventricular septum and obstruction of the outflow tract. Although dyspnea can be apresenting symptom of HCM, this patient has additional clinical signs suggestive of superior vena cava syndrome, and his smoking history and age make it more likely that lung cancer is the cause.",
"D is not correct. 19% chose this. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is a form of interstitial lung disease that causes progressive dyspnea on exertion and, in some cases, a nonproductive dry cough. Common chest radiographic findings are increased lung markings at the bases and a honeycombing pattern. However, the head and neck edema, in addition to the smoking history, in this patient suggest superior vena cava syndrome secondary to lung cancer rather than IPF."
],
"bottom_line": "Bottom Line: Compression of the superior vena cava leads to dilation of the venous collateral circulation, causing head and neck edema. The patient's age, symptoms, and social history make lung cancer likely.",
"total_id": 83,
"type": "Oncology"
},
"question": " Which of the following is most likely diagnosis?",
"gpt_extract_mdeical_info": "1. Patient's age: 71.\n2. Patient's gender: male.\n3. Presenting symptoms: progressive dyspnea, wheezing, coughing.\n4. Medical history: hypertension.\n5. Smoking history: 60-pack-year.\n6. Physical examination:\n 1. Difficulty speaking.\n 2. Breathing using accessory respiratory muscles.\n 3. Neck vein distention.\n 4. Tongue swelling.",
"medical_info_list": {
"Patient's age": "71.",
"Patient's gender": "male.",
"Presenting symptoms": "progressive dyspnea, wheezing, coughing.",
"Medical history": "hypertension.",
"Smoking history": "60-pack-year.",
"Physical examination": "Difficulty speaking. Breathing using accessory respiratory muscles. Neck vein distention. Tongue swelling."
},
"dataset": "QMAX",
"id": 1,
"history": [
{
"doctor": "Hello, I'm your doctor. How can I help you today?",
"state": "O",
"patient": "I've been experiencing increasing shortness of breath, wheezing, and coughing for the past six weeks."
}
]
},
{
"raw_data": {
"id": 10,
"question": "A 32-year-old janitor presents with a disease of infectious origin. The organism responsible for his symptoms is revealed with an India ink stain, shown in the image.\nWhat clinical findings would be most likely in this patient?",
"options": {
"A": " Diffuse abdominal pain with rebound tenderness",
"B": " Dull bone pain that worsens on movement",
"C": " Fever, fatigue, cough, and pleuritic chest pain",
"D": " Ulcerative cutaneous papules",
"E": " Urinary frequency and urgency"
},
"answer_idx": "C",
"explaination": [
"The correct answer is C. 78% chose this. The species shown is Cryptococcus neoformans. Board review guides often emphasize that this species is a causative agent of fungal meningitis in immunocompromised patients (with Blastomyces, Coccidioides, and Histoplasma as causes of fungal pneumonia). Students should note, however, that these are oversimplifications. All the systemic mycoses can cause infection in a number of sites. Althoughmeningoencephalitis is the most common clinical manifestation of cryptococcal disease, it is not the only one. In fact, the initial site of inoculation with Cryptococcus is the lung; meningitis can ensue only after theyeasts have disseminated from this site. Patients present more often with cryptococcal meningitis, in large part because many lung infections are asymptomatic. When an individual does experience symptoms from cryptococcal pneumonia (the second most common clinical manifestation), the symptoms can include fever, fatigue, cough, and pleuritic chest pain. Other less common findings may include hemoptysis, auscultatory rales, or a pleural rub.",
"A is not correct. 6% chose this. Peritonitis is rare manifestation of the disease.",
"B is not correct. 6% chose this. These symptoms are indicative of bony involvement. Osteolytic bone lesions are another less common manifestation of disseminated cryptococcosis.",
"D is not correct. 7% chose this. Cutaneous lesions appear in 10%-15% of cases of disseminated cryptococcosis. They are often seen as a sign of particularly severe disease. Isolated cryptococcal skin lesions without disseminated infection are rare in immunocompetent individuals, but can be seen in patients with HIV.",
"E is not correct. 3% chose this. These are symptoms of prostatitis. Cryptococcal prostatitis is occasionally seen, albeit less frequently, in cases of disseminated disease."
],
"bottom_line": "Bottom Line: Cryptococcus neoformans, visualized via India ink stain and carried by pigeons, most commonly causesmeningoencephalitis, followed by cryptococcal pneumonia.",
"total_id": 376,
"type": "Pulmonary"
},
"question": "\nWhat clinical findings would be most likely in this patient?",
"gpt_extract_mdeical_info": "1. Patient's age: 32 years old.\n2. Patient's occupation: janitor.\n3. Patient's gender: man.\n4. The disease is of infectious origin.\n5. The organism responsible for the symptoms can be revealed with an India ink stain.",
"medical_info_list": {
"Patient's age": "32 years old.",
"Patient's occupation": "janitor.",
"Patient's gender": "man.",
"info_1": "The organism responsible for the symptoms can be revealed with an India ink stain."
},
"dataset": "QMAX",
"id": 2,
"history": [
{
"doctor": "Hello, I'm your doctor. How can I help you today?",
"state": "O",
"patient": "I've been feeling unwell and I think it might be due to an infection."
}
]
},
{
"raw_data": {
"id": 59,
"question": "A 55-year-old man with a significant smoking history complains of dyspnea and productive cough for 1 week. Physical examination reveals diffuse wheezes, a prolonged expiratory phase, hyperresonance to percussion, and a barrel chest. The patient is afebrile and has a heart rate of 105/min. The physician prescibes a commonly used medication in hopes that it will help to alleviate this patients symptoms. One week later, the patient returns to the office with recent onset of tremors and feels as though his heart is racing. In addition to counseling the patient, what additional tests should be ordered?",
"options": {
"A": " Basic metabolic panel",
"B": " Blood cultures",
"C": " Chest X-ray",
"D": " Complete blood count",
"E": " Urine tox screen"
},
"answer_idx": "A",
"explaination": [
"The correct answer is A. 48% chose this. Salmeterol and albuterol act selectively at ß2-adrenergic receptors, causing bronchial smooth muscle relaxation. Catecholamines in general promote potassium entry into cells by increasing the activities of the Na-K-ATPase pump, and the Na-K-2Cl (NKCC1) cotransporter. These ß-agonists have been proven in randomized, controlled trials and meta-analyses to improve symptoms and lung function. They are typically prescribed on an as-needed basis rather than regularly scheduled, to decrease exposure in patients with less severe symptoms. Risks of ß-agonist overuse include tremor, tachycardia, and hypokalemia. As this patient is likely presenting with overdose of his albuterol inhaler, it is possible that he has developed hypokalemia, which can be very dangerous. The easiest way to measure serum potassium is through a basic metabolic panel, which quantifies serum sodium, potassium, chloride, bicarbonate, creatinine, BUN, and glucose.",
"B is not correct. 8% chose this. Blood cultures are useful for detecting infections. This is highly unlikely in this patient given his presentation and recent initiation on a new medication, which is likely a ß-agonist.",
"C is not correct. 19% chose this. Patients with pre-existing pulmonary conditions are at a heightened risk of developing infections, such as pneumonia. Nonetheless, this patient is not presenting with any symptoms of infection or pneumonia. Although chest X-rays are useful in monitoring the status of chronic lung conditions such as COPD, it is highly unlikely that this patient's COPD has changed significantly since his office visit 1 week ago.",
"D is not correct. 12% chose this. Complete blood counts are a useful tests for infection. Although this patient is at a heightened risk of infection, such as pneumonia, given his chronic lung condition (COPD), he is not exhibiting any symptoms suggestive of infection. It is far more likely that he is overusing his newly prescribed ß-agonist.",
"E is not correct. 13% chose this. Although intoxication with a variety of drugs can lead to tremors and tachycardia, it is much more likely that this patient's symptoms are due to his overuse of a ß-agonist, which was recently prescribed to reduce his COPD exacerbations."
],
"bottom_line": "Bottom Line: Bronchodilators are the therapeutic mainstay for patients with COPD. ß-Agonists include albuterol and levalbuterol, which have been proven to improve symptoms and lung function in patients with COPD. Risks of ß-agonist overuse include tremor, reflex tachycardia, and hypokalemia.",
"total_id": 413,
"type": "Pulmonary"
},
"question": " In addition to counseling the patient, what additional tests should be ordered?",
"gpt_extract_mdeical_info": "1. Age: 55 years old.\n2. Gender: Male.\n3. Medical history: Significant smoking history.\n4. Presenting symptoms: Dyspnea and productive cough for 1 week.\n5. Physical examination findings:\n 1. Lung examination: Diffuse wheezes, prolonged expiratory phase, hyperresonance to percussion, and a barrel chest.\n 2. Vital signs: Afebrile and heart rate of 105/min.\n6. Treatment: Prescribed medication.\n7. Follow-up symptoms: Tremors and racing heart.",
"medical_info_list": {
"Age": "55 years old.",
"Gender": "Male.",
"Medical history": "Significant smoking history.",
"Presenting symptoms": "Dyspnea and productive cough for 1 week.",
"Lung examination": "Diffuse wheezes, prolonged expiratory phase, hyperresonance to percussion, and a barrel chest.",
"Vital signs": "Afebrile and heart rate of 105/min.",
"Treatment": "Prescribed medication.",
"Follow-up symptoms": "Tremors and racing heart."
},
"dataset": "QMAX",
"id": 3,
"history": [
{
"doctor": "Hello, I'm your doctor. How can I help you today?",
"state": "O",
"patient": "I've been experiencing difficulty breathing and a cough that brings up mucus for the past week, and now I'm feeling shaky and like my heart is beating too fast."
}
]
},
{
"raw_data": {
"id": 113,
"question": "A 4-year-old boy is brought to a rural clinic because of a 1-week history of intense coughing spells that last 1-2 minutes, occasionally followed by vomiting. On questioning, the patient's mother recalls that he had a cold about 2 weeks ago, but that the coughing has become much worse recently. He has not received any immunizations. His vital signs are within normal limits, and physical examination is unremarkable. Laboratory studies show a WBC count of 22,000/mm³ with 60% lymphocytes. X-ray of the chest isunremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?",
"options": {
"A": " Bordetella pertussis",
"B": " Corynebacterium diphtheriae",
"C": " Haemophilus influenzae",
"D": " Mycobacterium tuberculosis",
"E": " Streptococcus pneumoniae"
},
"answer_idx": "A",
"explaination": [
"The correct answer is A. 70% chose this. This patient presents with a typical picture of pertussis, or whooping cough, caused by the gram-negative organism Bordetella pertussis. A prodromal phase resembling an upper respiratory tract infection is followed by roughly 1-6 weeks of coughing spells interspersed with a loud \"whooping\" sound caused by inspiration against a narrowed airway. Commonly, the cough is followed by posttussive emesis. A prominent lymphocytosis is often present as well. The pertussis vaccine is a routine childhood immunization, but this patient has not been immunized. Culture using Bordet-Gengou agar is the gold standard in diagnosis.",
"B is not correct. 6% chose this. The exotoxin of Corynebacterium diphtheriae functions via the inactivation of elongation factor 2, causingpharyngitis and pseudomembrane in the throat.",
"C is not correct. 14% chose this. Haemophilus influenzae may cause acute and chronic otitis and sinusitis. This organism commonly colonizes patients with chronic pulmonary disease and is associated with exacerbation of bronchitis and frank pneumonia.",
"D is not correct. 4% chose this. Primary Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection does not present with intense coughing spells and the \"whoop.\" It usually starts with the formation of the Ghon complex and hilar lymphadenopathy.",
"E is not correct. 6% chose this. Streptococcus pneumoniae multiplies in the alveolar spaces. Most patients have productive cough with blood-tinged sputum. Infection is generally localized to the lower lobes of the lungs."
],
"bottom_line": "Bottom Line: Bordetella pertussis is the most likely causative organism of cough in children who have not been immunized. Infection presents with paroxysmal cough (\"whooping cough\") and intermittent posttussis vomiting.",
"total_id": 456,
"type": "Pulmonary"
},
"question": " Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?",
"gpt_extract_mdeical_info": "1. Patient's age: 4-year-old.\n2. Patient's gender: Male.\n3. Reason for visit: Intense coughing spells for 1-week, occasionally followed by vomiting.\n4. Medical history: Patient had a cold about 2 weeks ago.\n5. Immunization history: Patient has not received any immunizations.\n6. Vital signs: Within normal limits.\n7. Physical examination: Unremarkable.\n8. Laboratory studies:\n 1. WBC count: 22,000/mm³.\n 2. Percentage of lymphocytes in WBC count: 60%.\n9. X-ray of the chest: Unremarkable.",
"medical_info_list": {
"Patient's age": "4-year-old.",
"Patient's gender": "Male.",
"Reason for visit": "Intense coughing spells for 1-week, occasionally followed by vomiting.",
"Medical history": "Patient had a cold about 2 weeks ago.",
"Immunization history": "Patient has not received any immunizations.",
"Vital signs": "Within normal limits.",
"Physical examination": "Unremarkable.",
"WBC count": "22,000/mm³.",
"Percentage of lymphocytes in WBC count": "60%.",
"X-ray of the chest": "Unremarkable."
},
"dataset": "QMAX",
"id": 4,
"history": [
{
"doctor": "Hello, I'm your doctor. How can I help you today?",
"state": "O",
"patient": "I've been having intense coughing spells that last a couple of minutes and sometimes make me vomit, especially after having a cold a few weeks ago."
}
]
},
{
"raw_data": {
"id": 39,
"question": "A 24-year-old sexually active woman presents to her gynecologist with symptoms of genital itching, burning, and foul-smelling discharge. Samples are taken and \"clue cells\" are observed on microscopic wet mount. What is the mechanism of the drug most appropriate for treating this condition?",
"options": {
"A": " Binding of D-ala-D-ala portions of cell-wall precursors",
"B": " Binding of the 30S ribosomal subunit",
"C": " Blocking of cross-linking of the cell wall",
"D": " Formation of intracellular toxic metabolites in bacteria",
"E": " Inhibition of dihydropteroate synthase"
},
"answer_idx": "D",
"explaination": [
"The correct answer is D. 47% chose this. This patient presents with symptoms of bacterial vaginosis, which is caused by a polymicrobial bacterial overgrowth in the vagina. Gardnerella vaginalis, a pleomorphic gram-variable rod, is almost always involved",
"in bacterial vaginosis. Affected females will complain of genital burning, itching, and a whitish-gray vaginal discharge with a fishy smell. Bacterial vaginosis is diagnosed by the presence of \"clue cells\" under the microscope, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria. It is treated with metronidazole, an antimicrobial and antiprotozoal agent that acts by inducing the formation of toxic metabolites within the bacterial or protozoal cell. Both an oral formulation and a gel are available for treatment.",
"A is not correct. 9% chose this. Vancomycin is an antimicrobial that acts by inhibiting cell wall mucopeptide formation by binding the Dalanine-D-alanyl portion of cell-wall precursors. It is used for serious, gram-positive multidrug-resistant organisms, including Staphylococcus aureus and Clostridium difficile. It is not used in the treatment of Gardnerella vaginalis infection.",
"B is not correct. 17% chose this. Tetracycline is a bacteriostatic antimicrobial that acts by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit and preventing the attachment of aminoacyl-tRNA. It is used to treat infections caused by Vibrio cholerae, Chlamydia, Ureaplasma, Urealyticum, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Francisella tularensis, Helicobacter pylori, Borrelia burgdorferi, and Rickettsia. It is not used in the treatment of Gardnerella vaginalis infection.",
"C is not correct. 14% chose this. Ampicillin is an aminopenicillin antimicrobial with a wider spectrum than penicillin. The mechanism of all penicillins is blocking the transpeptidase cross-linking of cell walls by binding penicillin-binding proteins. Ampicillin is penicillinase-sensitive but is often combined with clavulanic acid to enhance its spectrum. It isused to treat certain gram-positive and gram-negative infections, including from Haemophilus influenzae,Escherichia coli, Listeria, Proteus, Salmonella, enterococci, and Shigella, but is not used in the treatment of Gardnerella vaginalis infections.",
"E is not correct. 13% chose this. Sulfamethoxazole is a bacteriostatic antimicrobial that inhibits folate synthesis by inhibitiing dihydropteroate synthase. It is used to treat Nocardia, Chlamydia, and simple urinary tract infections. It is not used in the treatment of Gardnerella vaginalis infections."
],
"bottom_line": "Bottom Line: Bacterial vaginosis is treated with metronidazole, an antimicrobial and antiprotozoal that induces the formation of toxic metabolites within the bacterial or protozoal cell.",
"total_id": 181,
"type": "Reproductive"
},
"question": " What is the mechanism of the drug most appropriate for treating this condition?",
"gpt_extract_mdeical_info": "1. Patient's age: 24 years old.\n2. Patient's gender: Female.\n3. Chief complaint: genital itching, burning, and foul-smelling discharge.\n4. Sexual history: sexually active.\n5. Diagnosis: presence of \"clue cells\" on microscopic wet mount.\n6. Potential diagnosis: bacterial vaginosis (based on symptoms and presence of clue cells).\n7. Plan of care: further testing and treatment for bacterial vaginosis.",
"medical_info_list": {
"Patient's age": "24 years old.",
"Patient's gender": "Female.",
"Chief complaint": "genital itching, burning, and foul-smelling discharge.",
"Sexual history": "sexually active.",
"Diagnosis": "presence of \"clue cells\" on microscopic wet mount.",
"Potential diagnosis": "bacterial vaginosis (based on symptoms and presence of clue cells).",
"Plan of care": "further testing and treatment for bacterial vaginosis."
},
"dataset": "QMAX",
"id": 5,
"history": [
{
"doctor": "Hello, I'm your doctor. How can I help you today?",
"state": "O",
"patient": "I've been experiencing genital itching, burning, and a foul-smelling discharge."
}
]
},
{
"raw_data": {
"id": 18,
"question": "A 65-year-old woman who underwent a mastectomy 5 years ago returns to her oncologist for a check-up. She is currently taking exemestane for hormone-responsive breast cancer. What is the normal function of the enzyme targeted by exemestane?",
"options": {
"A": " Conversion of androstenedione to testosterone",
"B": " Conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone",
"C": " Conversion of testosterone to estradiol",
"D": " Secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone",
"E": " Secretion of luteinizing hormone"
},
"answer_idx": "C",
"explaination": [
"The correct answer is C. 73% chose this. Exemestane is an aromatase inhibitor, preventing conversion of testosterone to estradiol and androstenedione to estrone. It works by forming an irreversible bond with aromatase. Two nonsteroidal aromatase inhibitors are anastrozole and letrozole, which inhibit aromatase via reversible competition. It is used to treat postmenopausal women with hormone-responsive breast cancer. It is often used after 2–3 years of tamoxifen treatment, or in patients who have hormone-responsive breast cancer that advances despite tamoxifen treatment. Unlike premenopausal women, for whom estrogen is predominantly synthesized in the ovary, estrogen in postmenopausal women is largely derived from the adrenal gland, where aromatase converts androgens to estrogen.",
"A is not correct. 7% chose this. Conversion of androstenedione to testosterone is facilitated by 17β-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase. It is produced in the adrenal glands and gonads.",
"B is not correct. 5% chose this. Conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone is facilitated by 5α-reductase. Aromatase, however, converts testosterone into estradiol. 5α-Reductase is produced in men, specifically in the prostate, epididymis, seminal vesicles, and skin. Finasteride, an inhibitor of this enzyme, is used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), prostate cancer, and male pattern baldness. Dutasteride is another drug in its class that is used to treat BPH. Inhibition of this enzyme may actually increase the levels of estradiol.",
"D is not correct. 9% chose this. Gonadotropic-releasing hormone (GnRH) acts to promote the release of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) from the pituitary gland. Leuprolide, a GnRH agonist, can be used to treat hormone-responsive prostate or breast cancer. Leuprolide constantly stimulates GnRH receptors, which results in an initial flare of FSH and LH release. However, intermittent pulses of GnRH activity are necessary to maintain proper secretion of these hormones, and their release is soon downregulated.",
"E is not correct. 6% chose this. GnRH acts to promote the release of FSH and LH from the pituitary gland. Leuprolide, a GnRH agonist, can be used to treat hormone-responsive prostate or breast cancer. Leuprolide constantly stimulates GnRH receptors, which results in an initial flare of FSH and LH release. However, intermittent pulses of GnRH activity are necessary to maintain proper secretion of these hormones, and their release is soon downregulated."
],
"bottom_line": "Bottom Line: Aromatase converts testosterone to estradiol and androstenedione to estrone. Exemestane forms an irreversible bond with aromatase, thereby inhibiting its activity. Exemestane is commonly used to treat hormone-responsive breast cancer in postmenopausal women.",
"total_id": 16,
"type": "Oncology"
},
"question": " What is the normal function of the enzyme targeted by exemestane?",
"gpt_extract_mdeical_info": "1. Patient's age: 65 years old\n2. Patient's gender: Female\n3. Past medical history: underwent a mastectomy 5 years ago\n4. Current medication: taking exemestane\n5. Diagnosis: hormone-responsive breast cancer.",
"medical_info_list": {
"Patient's age": "65 years old",
"Patient's gender": "Female",
"Past medical history": "underwent a mastectomy 5 years ago",
"Current medication": "taking exemestane",
"Diagnosis": "hormone-responsive breast cancer."
},
"dataset": "QMAX",
"id": 6,
"history": [
{
"doctor": "Hello, I'm your doctor. How can I help you today?",
"state": "O",
"patient": "I'm here for a check-up."
}
]
},
{
"raw_data": {
"id": 76,
"question": "A 35-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to the emergency department with multiple episodes of vomiting after a late night out at bars with her friends. She is oriented, follows commands, and answers all questions appropriately. On physical examination the patient's face is flushed, and her heart rate is 110/min. Her abdomen is nontender without guarding or rebound. Neurologic examination results and gait are normal. Which of the following diabetes medications is most likely causing this patient's symptoms?",
"options": {
"A": " Acarbose",
"B": " Chlorpropamide",
"C": " Glargine",
"D": " Glipizide",
"E": " Metformin",
"F": " Pioglitazone",
"G": " Pramlintide"
},
"answer_idx": "B",
"explaination": [
"The correct answer is B. 33% chose this. Chlorpropamide is a first-generation sulfonylurea used to treat type 2 diabetes. Sulfonylureas act by increasing pancreatic production of insulin by β islet cells. Although vomiting can occur with alcohol toxicity, this patient is oriented and appropriate without ataxia, making this unlikely. Instead, this patient is presenting with signs of a disulfiram-like reaction after alcohol consumption, which include nausea, vomiting, headache, flushing, and tachycardia. First-generation sulfonylureas, and chlorpropamide in particular, can cause a disulfiram-like reaction when taken with ethanol. Other medications that are known to cause disulfiram-like reactions include metronidazole, procarbazine, and some cephalosporins.",
"A is not correct. 9% chose this. Acarbose is an α-glucosidase inhibitor that blocks the enzyme responsible for sugar hydrolysis at the intestinal lumen border, mitigating the spike in blood glucose after a meal. The adverse effects of α-glucosidase inhibitors are gastrointestinal disturbances causing abdominal pain and diarrhea.",
"C is not correct. 7% chose this. Glargine is a long-acting synthetic insulin that provides a continuous baseline level of insulin in the blood. The most important adverse effect associated with this agent is hypoglycemia if this drug is taken in excess. Although hypoglycemia can lead to tachycardia, the physician also expects confusion or altered mental status and shakiness, which this patient does not have.",
"D is not correct. 15% chose this. Glipizide is a second-generation sulfonylurea that acts by stimulating insulin production by pancreatic β islet cells. The most important adverse effect associated with this agent is hypoglycemia. Second-generation sulfonylureas are much less likely to cause a disulfiram-like reaction than their first-generation kin. Because sulfonylureas are metabolized by the liver and excreted by the kidneys, liver or renal insufficiency is a contraindication to their use.",
"E is not correct. 18% chose this. Metformin is an oral biguanide that is thought to inhibit gluconeogenesis and increase glycolysis, resulting in decreased blood glucose concentrations. The most serious adverse effect associated with this agent is lactic acidosis. It is also metabolized by the",
"kidneys and is contraindicated in renal failure.",
"F is not correct. 11% chose this. Pioglitazone is a thiazolidinedione class agent that increases the responsiveness of cells to insulin. Adverse effects include weight gain, edema, cardiotoxicity, and hepatotoxicity, but it does not cause a disulfiram-like reaction.",
"G is not correct. 7% chose this. Pramlintide is an amylin mimetic that decreases glucagon. Amylin is a peptide that is normally released by the β cells along with insulin. The adverse effects of pramlintide include hypoglycemia, nausea, vomiting, and weight loss."
],
"bottom_line": "Bottom Line: First-generation sulfonylureas (chlorpropamide and tolbutamide) can cause a disulfiram-like reaction when taken with ethanol.",
"total_id": 332,
"type": "Endocrine"
},
"question": " Which of the following diabetes medications is most likely causing this patient's symptoms?",
"gpt_extract_mdeical_info": "1. Patient's age: 35 years old.\n2. Patient's gender: female.\n3. Patient's medical condition: type 2 diabetes mellitus.\n4. Reason for ER visit: multiple episodes of vomiting after a night out at bars.\n5. Mental status: oriented, follows commands, and answers questions appropriately.\n6. Physical examination findings:\n 1. Flushed face.\n 2. Heart rate: 110/min.\n 3. Abdomen: nontender without guarding or rebound.\n 4. Neurologic examination and gait: normal.\n7. Alcohol consumption: implied but not directly stated in the problem.\n8. Vital signs:\n 1. Heart rate: 110/min.\n9. Laboratory studies: not provided in the problem.",
"medical_info_list": {
"Patient's age": "35 years old.",
"Patient's gender": "female.",
"Patient's medical condition": "type 2 diabetes mellitus.",
"Reason for ER visit": "multiple episodes of vomiting after a night out at bars.",
"Mental status": "oriented, follows commands, and answers questions appropriately.",
"Physical examination findings": "Flushed face.",
"Heart rate": "110/min.",
"Abdomen": "nontender without guarding or rebound.",
"Neurologic examination and gait": "normal.",
"Alcohol consumption": "implied but not directly stated in the problem.",
"Laboratory studies": "not provided in the problem."
},
"dataset": "QMAX",
"id": 7,
"history": [
{
"doctor": "Hello, I'm your doctor. How can I help you today?",
"state": "O",
"patient": "I went out with my friends last night, and now I've been vomiting multiple times."
}
]
},
{
"raw_data": {
"id": 30,
"question": "A 40-year-old woman presents with a chief complaint of progressive dyspnea and a nonproductive cough. She has a 40-pack-year smoking history. X-ray of the chest reveals a honeycomb appearance, and a CT image shows cystic lesions. An electron micrograph of her tissue biopsy is shown.\nThis patient’s defective cells are most likely to stain positive for which of the following?",
"options": {
"A": " CD20 ",
"B": " CD30 ",
"C": " CD5 ",
"D": " S-100",
"E": " TdT"
},
"answer_idx": "D",
"explaination": [
"The correct answer is D. 43% chose this. This woman has histiocytosis X, a condition characterized by the abnormal proliferation of cells of mononuclear phagocytic origin, which are called histiocytes. The histiocytes that proliferate in this condition are dendritic cells that are related in lineage to Langerhans cells, the dendritic cells of the skin, and for this reason, the disease is also called Langerhans histiocytosis. Patients with this disease can present with hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, lung and bone lesions, and cutaneous eruptions. The histiocytes are stellate (dendritic) cells with an oval or irregular pale nucleus, pale cytoplasm, and characteristic cytoplasmic granules (Birbeck granules). Birbeck granules are pathognomonic of Langerhans cell histiocytosis. They are said to resemble tennis rackets, as seen in the electron micrograph in the vignette.",
"The defective dendritic cells in this disease stain positively for S-100 and CD1a.",
"A is not correct. 17% chose this. CD20 is a B-lymphocyte marker. It can be helpful in diagnosing B-lymphocyte-derived malignancies such as follicular lymphoma, diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, or chronic lymphocytic leukemia.",
"B is not correct. 14% chose this. CD30+ cells are found on Reed-Sternberg cells, the characteristic cell of Hodgkin lymphoma.",
"C is not correct. 16% chose this. CD5+ cells are seen in mantle cell lymphoma, which is caused by the t(11;14) translocation. Mantle cell lymphomas express high levels of cyclin D1 and tend to manifest in men in their 50s and 60s as painless lymphadenopathy. CD5+ cells are also present in chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL). In contrast, CLL cells are negative for cyclin D1 and often positive for CD23.",
"E is not correct. 10% chose this. TdT+ cells are seen in acute lymphocytic leukemia. TdT stands for terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase, which is a special DNA polymerase expressed in B- and T-lymphocyte precursors."
],
"bottom_line": "Bottom Line: Langerhans cells contain characteristic Birbeck granules. Dendritic cells in Langerhans cell histiocytosisstain positive for S-100 and CD1a.",
"total_id": 392,
"type": "Pulmonary"
},
"question": "\nThis patient’s defective cells are most likely to stain positive for which of the following?",
"gpt_extract_mdeical_info": "1. Patient's age: 40 years old.\n2. Patient's gender: Female.\n3. Chief complaint: Progressive dyspnea and nonproductive cough.\n4. Social history: 40-pack-year smoking history.\n5. Chest X-ray results: Honeycomb appearance.\n6. CT image results: Cystic lesions.\n7. Tissue biopsy type: Electron micrograph.",
"medical_info_list": {
"Patient's age": "40 years old.",
"Patient's gender": "Female.",
"Chief complaint": "Progressive dyspnea and nonproductive cough.",
"Social history": "40-pack-year smoking history.",
"Chest X-ray results": "Honeycomb appearance.",
"CT image results": "Cystic lesions.",
"Tissue biopsy type": "Electron micrograph."
},
"dataset": "QMAX",
"id": 8,
"history": [
{
"doctor": "Hello, I'm your doctor. How can I help you today?",
"state": "O",
"patient": "I've been experiencing increasing difficulty breathing and a persistent cough that doesn't produce any mucus."
}
]
},
{
"raw_data": {
"id": 75,
"question": "A 44-year-old man with a history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and type 1 diabetes mellitus who takes insulin, lisinopril, and atorvastatin is brought to the emergency department after experiencing several days of abdominal pain and polyuria. His basic metabolic panel shows: Na+: 134 mEq/L K+: 5.1 mEq/L Cl-: 94 mEq/L HCO3 -: 12 mEq/L BUN: 14 mg/dL Cr: 0.8 U/LGlucose: 310 mg/dL Based on the suspected diagnosis, which of the following physical signs is this patient likely to exhibit?",
"options": {
"A": " Bleeding from intravenous access sites",
"B": " Hyperventilation",
"C": " Jaundice",
"D": " Miosis",
"E": " Nystagmus"
},
"answer_idx": "B",
"explaination": [
"The correct answer is B. 82% chose this. People with poorly controlled type 1 diabetes are highly susceptible to developing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Based on his basic metabolic panel, the patient has a metabolic acidosis with an anion gap. DKA is characterized by hyperglycemia (>300 mg/dL), low bicarbonate levels (<15 mEq/L), acidosis (pH < 7.30), ketonemia, ketonuria, and dehydration. The absolute absence of insulin prevents cells from utilizing glucose. Fat becomes an alternative energy source, and in the process of fat breakdown, ketones are formed. The excess ketones cause an anion-gap metabolic acidosis, and patients with DKA compensate by hyperventilating. The severe dehydration and persistent acidemia have detrimental neurologic effects. Therefore it is common for patients with DKA to have changes in mental status, as well as nausea and vomiting. An infection often may precipitate DKA, so if a diabetic patient presents after a few days of pains or fevers, it is possible that besides the primary complaint, the patient subsequently may have developed DKA.",
"A is not correct. 3% chose this. Bleeding from intravenous access sites and body orifices is characteristic of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). In DIC the formation of many microthrombi causes depletion of platelets, coagulation factors, and fibrin, resulting in widespread bleeding. DIC can be caused by obstetric complications, gram-negative sepsis, acute promyelocytic leukemia, and burns, but not by diabetic ketoacidosis. The patient has no signs suggestive of DIC.",
"C is not correct. 6% chose this. Jaundice and liver failure are not associated with diabetic ketoacidosis; however, they will be seen in patients with acetaminophen toxicity. When taken in large doses, acetaminophen causes hepatic necrosis, resulting in nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, jaundice, and liver failure. Treatment is early administration of N-acetylcysteine. The patient has no history of acetaminophen intake.",
"D is not correct. 4% chose this. Miosis can be seen in opioid use and cholinergic toxicity. This patient is presenting with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), and miosis is not seen in DKA.",
"E is not correct. 5% chose this. The triad of hypersalivation, nystagmus, and tachycardia is characteristic of phencyclidine intoxication. This patient has no history of drug abuse."
],
"bottom_line": "Bottom Line: Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) manifests as the result of poorly controlled diabetes (predominantly type 1) and is characterized by significant hyperglycemia, ketonuria, and metabolic acidosis. Patients with DKA compensate for acidemia through hyperventilation.",
"total_id": 331,
"type": "Endocrine"
},
"question": "8 U/LGlucose: 310 mg/dL Based on the suspected diagnosis, which of the following physical signs is this patient likely to exhibit?",
"gpt_extract_mdeical_info": "1. Patient's age: 44 years old.\n2. Patient's gender: male.\n3. Patient's medical history: hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and type 1 diabetes mellitus.\n4. Medications taken by the patient: insulin, lisinopril, and atorvastatin.\n5. Vital signs:\n 1. Blood sodium level (Na+): 134 mEq/L\n 2. Blood potassium level (K+): 5.1 mEq/L\n 3. Blood chloride level (Cl-): 94 mEq/L\n 4. Blood bicarbonate level (HCO3-): 12 mEq/L\n6. Laboratory studies:\n 1. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level: 14 mg/dL\n 2. Creatinine (Cr) level: 0.",
"medical_info_list": {
"Patient's age": "44 years old.",
"Patient's gender": "male.",
"Patient's medical history": "hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and type 1 diabetes mellitus.",
"Medications taken by the patient": "insulin, lisinopril, and atorvastatin.",
"Blood sodium level (Na+)": "134 mEq/L",
"Blood potassium level (K+)": "5.1 mEq/L",
"Blood chloride level (Cl-)": "94 mEq/L",
"Blood bicarbonate level (HCO-)": "12 mEq/L",
"Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level": "14 mg/dL",
"Creatinine (Cr) level": "0."
},
"dataset": "QMAX",
"id": 9,
"history": [
{
"doctor": "Hello, I'm your doctor. How can I help you today?",
"state": "O",
"patient": "I've been experiencing abdominal pain and urinating a lot more than usual for several days."
}
]
},
{
"raw_data": {
"id": 130,
"question": "A 60-year-old man is found to have a large adenocarcinoma of the stomach. The tumor is centered at the pyloric zone just near the pyloric sphincter, on the lesser curvature. Which of the following signs and symptoms is most likely to be seen in this patient due to the mass effect of the tumor?",
"options": {
"A": " Anemia",
"B": " Constipation",
"C": " Hoarseness",
"D": " Jaundice",
"E": " Periumbilical mass"
},
"answer_idx": "D",
"explaination": [
"The correct answer is D. 34% chose this. This question tests the concept of mass effect of tumors, as well as anatomy. These two topics are inseparable and are necessary to understanding the etiology of some symptoms seen in the context of neoplasms. The adenocarcinoma impinges on the omental foramen, which is formed partly by the hepatoduodenal ligament. This ligament contains the common bile duct along with the hepatic artery proper and the hepatic portal vein. Obstruction of the common bile duct would lead to cholestasis and subsequently conjugated hyperbilirubinemia.",
"A is not correct. 19% chose this. Anemia may be a sign of gastrointestinal bleeding (seen with stomach or colonic cancers) or that bone marrow is dysfunctional and/or being replaced with malignant cells. Although anemia may be seen in this patient due to bleeding into the stomach, anemia is not a direct result of mass effect of the tumor.",
"B is not correct. 16% chose this. Constipation may be a symptom of obstruction of the left colon.",
"C is not correct. 11% chose this. Persistent hoarseness could be a manifestation of impingement of the recurrent laryngeal nerve. This symptom may be seen with thyroid or lung cancer.",
"E is not correct. 20% chose this. Although the tumor can metastasize to the periumbilical region to form a subcutaneous nodule, known as a Sister Mary Joseph nodule, the direct mass effect of the tumor does not affect the periumbilical region."
],
"bottom_line": "Bottom Line: The hepatoduodenal ligament contains the common bile duct, the hepatic artery, and the hepatic portal vein.",
"total_id": 117,
"type": "Oncology"
},
"question": " Which of the following signs and symptoms is most likely to be seen in this patient due to the mass effect of the tumor?",
"gpt_extract_mdeical_info": "1. Patient's age: 60 years old.\n2. Patient's gender: Male.\n3. Diagnosis: Large adenocarcinoma of the stomach.\n4. Location of the tumor: Centered at the pyloric zone near the pyloric sphincter, on the lesser curvature of the stomach.",
"medical_info_list": {
"Patient's age": "60 years old.",
"Patient's gender": "Male.",
"Diagnosis": "Large adenocarcinoma of the stomach.",
"Location of the tumor": "Centered at the pyloric zone near the pyloric sphincter, on the lesser curvature of the stomach."
},
"dataset": "QMAX",
"id": 10,
"history": [
{
"doctor": "Hello, I'm your doctor. How can I help you today?",
"state": "O",
"patient": "I've been feeling like my stomach is full and I get full quickly after eating, even with small meals."
}
]
},
{
"raw_data": {
"id": 95,
"question": "A 49-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining that \"my skin has turned yellow.\" The patient also reports recent weight loss and burning epigastric pain at night. Physical examination reveals the man is significantly jaundiced. He has no abdominal pain and has a negative Murphy's sign. The physician is concerned that he can feel the patient's gallbladder and orders a CT scan. What diagnosis should the physician be most concerned about with this patient's presentation?",
"options": {
"A": " Acute hepatitis",
"B": " Choledocholithiasis",
"C": " Cholelithiasis",
"D": " Hemolytic anemia",
"E": " Pancreatic cancer"
},
"answer_idx": "E",
"explaination": [
"The correct answer is E. 59% chose this. This patient's physical exam demonstrates Courvoisier sign: jaundice and a palpable, enlarged, nontendergallbladder. This sign is often found in patients with cancer in the head of the pancreas, which is obstructing the gallbladder and keeping it from emptying. Painless jaundice is a sign of intrapancreatic bile duct obstruction. About 95% of malignant pancreatic neoplasms come from exocrine cells. Treatment usually involves resections of the pancreatic head, duodenum, and gallbladder (Whipple procedure).",
"A is not correct. 7% chose this. Acute hepatitis is associated with tenderness in the right upper quadrant, and it should not produce an enlarged gallbladder.",
"B is not correct. 16% chose this. Choledocholithiasis is the presence of a stone in the common bile duct. It is a common cause of cholecystitis, which is associated with tenderness in the right upper quadrant. It is often associated with pain while eating, especially fatty foods. Other potential symptoms of choledocholithiasis include jaundice, pruritus, and nausea. However, up to 50% of patients can be asymptomatic. This patient could have choledocholithiasis, but with this presentation a physician should first rule out pancreatic cancer. Choledocholithiasis is usually treated with endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography and papillotomy with stone extraction.",
"C is not correct. 12% chose this. Cholelithiasis simply refers to stones within the gallbladder. It is generally painless, and does not cause jaundice or an enlarged gallbladder.",
"D is not correct. 6% chose this. Hemolytic anemia is a cause of painless jaundice, but it is not associated with an enlarged gallbladder."
],
"bottom_line": "Bottom Line: Painless jaundice and palpable gallbladder (Courvoisier sign) are commonly associated with pancreatic cancer.",
"total_id": 88,
"type": "Oncology"
},
"question": " What diagnosis should the physician be most concerned about with this patient's presentation?",
"gpt_extract_mdeical_info": "1. Patient's age: 49 years old.\n2. Patient's gender: male.\n3. Chief complaint: skin has turned yellow.\n4. Additional complaints: recent weight loss and burning epigastric pain at night.\n5. Physical examination finding: significant jaundice.\n6. Abdominal examination finding: gallbladder palpable.\n7. Abdominal pain: absent.\n8. Murphy's sign: negative.\n9. Diagnostic test ordered: CT scan.",
"medical_info_list": {
"Patient's age": "49 years old.",
"Patient's gender": "male.",
"Chief complaint": "skin has turned yellow.",
"Additional complaints": "recent weight loss and burning epigastric pain at night.",
"Physical examination finding": "significant jaundice.",
"Abdominal examination finding": "gallbladder palpable.",
"Abdominal pain": "absent.",
"Murphy's sign": "negative.",
"Diagnostic test ordered": "CT scan."
},
"dataset": "QMAX",
"id": 11,
"history": [
{
"doctor": "Hello, I'm your doctor. How can I help you today?",
"state": "O",
"patient": "\"I've noticed my skin turning yellow, and I've been experiencing weight loss and burning pain in my upper abdomen at night.\""
}
]
},
{
"raw_data": {
"id": 78,
"question": "A 65-year-old male immigrant from Africa presents to the emergency department after an episode of gross hematuria. He states that he has seen small amounts of blood in his urine from time to time over the past several months. His physical examination is remarkable only for mild hepatosplenomegaly. A urology consult is called, and the urologist performs a bedside cystoscopy. A large fungating mass is seen adherent to the superior part of the bladder. Results of a biopsy are shown in the image.\n",
"options": {
"A": " Cigarette smoking",
"B": " Exposure to aniline dyes",
"C": " Helminth infection",
"D": " Infection with a papillomavirus",
"E": " Long-term indwelling catheter"
},
"answer_idx": "C",
"explaination": [
"The correct answer is C. 50% chose this. This patient is suffering from squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) of the bladder. Although this condition is rare in the United States, it is the most common type of bladder cancer in the world. The most common cause ischronic irritation by the eggs of the helminth Schistosoma haematobium, which lodge in the bladder wall.Although smoking has also been linked to an increased risk of SCC of the bladder, in this patient of African descent, helminth infection is the more likely risk factor. Squamous cell carcinoma can be distinguished from transitional cell carcinoma pathologically by its appearance. This specimen shows keratin pearl formation, a common finding in squamous cell cancers. In contrast to the United States, where transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder is the most common type of bladder cancer (it accounts for 95% of cases), countries in which Schistosoma haematobium is endemic have much higher rates of squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder.",
"A is not correct. 18% chose this. Cigarette smoking is the most common risk factor associated with transitional cell bladder carcinoma. In this case, however, the patient's presentation and pathology are more suggestive of squamous cell carcinoma (SCC). Smoking has also been linked to increased risk of SCC, but helminth infection remains the greater and more common risk factor, particularly outside the United States.",
"B is not correct. 19% chose this. Aniline dyes are associated with transitional cell carcinoma, the most common type of bladder cancer in the United States. They are not associated with squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder.",
"D is not correct. 7% chose this. Papillomaviridae such as human papillomavirus are responsible for genital warts and cervical carcinoma. They are not associated with bladder cancers.",
"E is not correct. 6% chose this. Long-term catheterization is associated with the development of squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder. Based on the patient's history, however, there is no reason to assume this patient has had an indwelling catheter at any time."
],
"bottom_line": "Bottom Line: This patient has bladder cancer caused by long-term irritation from the eggs of the trematode Schistosoma haematobium.",
"total_id": 71,
"type": "Oncology"
},
"question": "\n",
"gpt_extract_mdeical_info": "1. Patient's age: 65 years old.\n2. Patient's gender: male.\n3. Patient's country of origin: Africa.\n4. Reason for presentation: an episode of gross hematuria.\n5. Frequency of blood in urine: small amounts from time to time over the past several months.\n6. Remarkable physical examination finding: mild hepatosplenomegaly.\n7. Type of specialist consulted: urologist.\n8. Diagnostic tool used: bedside cystoscopy.\n9. Location and size of bladder mass: adherent to the superior part of the bladder and large and fungating.\n10. Results of biopsy: shown in the image, but not provided in the given text.",
"medical_info_list": {
"Patient's age": "65 years old.",
"Patient's gender": "male.",
"Patient's country of origin": "Africa.",
"Reason for presentation": "an episode of gross hematuria.",
"Frequency of blood in urine": "small amounts from time to time over the past several months.",
"Remarkable physical examination finding": "mild hepatosplenomegaly.",
"Type of specialist consulted": "urologist.",
"Diagnostic tool used": "bedside cystoscopy.",
"Location and size of bladder mass": "adherent to the superior part of the bladder and large and fungating.",
"Results of biopsy": "shown in the image, but not provided in the given text."
},
"dataset": "QMAX",
"id": 12,
"history": [
{
"doctor": "Hello, I'm your doctor. How can I help you today?",
"state": "O",
"patient": "I came to the emergency department because I've been noticing blood in my urine for the past several months."
}
]
},
{
"raw_data": {
"id": 109,
"question": "A 35-year-old, slender woman is brought by ambulance to the emergency department unresponsive after a bout of confusion and agitation. Temperature is 39.2°C (102.5°F), blood pressure is 100/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 165/min. The patient has a diffuse goiter and hyperreflexia, and a systolic ejection murmur at the heart's apex. Her husband states she has recently become increasingly anxious, often yelling at him for keeping the apartment too hot. After acute management of ABCs and heart rate control, which of the following is the appropriate medication for long-term management of the patient's condition?",
"options": {
"A": " Iodine",
"B": " Levothyroxine",
"C": " Methimazole",
"D": " Radioiodine ablation",
"E": " Surgical resection"
},
"answer_idx": "C",
"explaination": [
"The correct answer is C. 53% chose this. This patient is presenting with a medical emergency—an extreme form of thyrotoxicosis known as \"thyroid storm.\" The symptoms of this syndrome are due primarily to increased β-adrenergic outflow stimulated by excessive thyroid hormones. After primary stabilization (propranolol and attention to airway, breathing, and circulation), methimazole is the most appropriate pharmacologic treatment for this condition. Propylthiouracil is an alternative treatment that may be administered to patients who cannot tolerate methimazole or pregnant patients for whom methimazole is contraindicated due to its teratogenicity. However, propylthiouracil is otherwise avoided due to concerns of hepatotoxicity. Both agents inhibit the endogenous synthesis of thyroxine.",
"A is not correct. 5% chose this. Iodine, which decreases the release of preformed thyroxine, can be used as an adjunct to propylthiouracil or methimazole but should not be used until one of these agents is allowed to take effect. In areas of the world where goiters are endemic, supplemental iodine is used to increase thyroid hormone production. Consequently, iodine administration could potentially worsen this patient's condition due to the escape phenomenon that can be seen with iodine administration.",
"B is not correct. 6% chose this. Levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone used to treat hypothyroidism, is contraindicated in the treatment of thyrotoxicosis. The administration of more thyroid hormone to a patient with symptomatic hyperthyroidism would only worsen the",
"condition.",
"D is not correct. 24% chose this. Radioiodine ablation utilizes the radioisotope iodine-131 given orally to restrict and/or destroy the hyperactive thyroid gland. This is a possible treatment for this patient, but antithyroid drugs are typically utilized before more invasive treatments, such as radioiodine ablation or surgical resection, are considered.",
"E is not correct. 12% chose this. Surgical resection is not routinely used in the most common forms of hyperthyroidisms because of the risk to parathyroid glands and the recurrent laryngeal nerve. Antithyroid drugs would be the most appropriate initial treatment of this patient's underlying condition."
],
"bottom_line": "Bottom Line: After primary stabilization (propranolol and attention to airway, breathing, and circulation), propylthiouracil or methimazole is the most appropriate pharmacologic treatment for \"thyroid storm.\"",
"total_id": 360,
"type": "Endocrine"
},
"question": " After acute management of ABCs and heart rate control, which of the following is the appropriate medication for long-term management of the patient's condition?",
"gpt_extract_mdeical_info": "1. Patient's age: 35-year-old.\n2. Patient's gender: Female.\n3. Presenting symptoms: Unresponsive, confusion, agitation, hyperreflexia.\n4. Vital signs:\n 1. Temperature: 39.2°C (102.5°F)\n 2. Blood pressure: 100/70 mm Hg\n 3. Pulse: 165/min\n5. Medical history: Diffuse goiter.\n6. Cardiac exam: Systolic ejection murmur at the heart's apex.\n7. Recent behavioral change: Increasing anxiety, yelling at husband for keeping the apartment too hot.",
"medical_info_list": {
"Patient's age": "35-year-old.",
"Patient's gender": "Female.",
"Presenting symptoms": "Unresponsive, confusion, agitation, hyperreflexia.",
"Temperature": "39.2°C (102.5°F)",
"Blood pressure": "100/70 mm Hg",
"Pulse": "165/min",
"Medical history": "Diffuse goiter.",
"Cardiac exam": "Systolic ejection murmur at the heart's apex.",
"Recent behavioral change": "Increasing anxiety, yelling at husband for keeping the apartment too hot."
},
"dataset": "QMAX",
"id": 13,
"history": [
{
"doctor": "Hello, I'm your doctor. How can I help you today?",
"state": "O",
"patient": "I've been feeling increasingly anxious and have been getting upset about my apartment feeling too hot."
}
]
},
{
"raw_data": {
"id": 74,
"question": "A 7-year-old boy presents for the third time in 1 month because of acute onset cough, dyspnea, and wheezing. His symptoms improve with administration of a short-acting inhaled β2-agonist, which he uses athome as well whenever he begins feeling short of breath. He uses no other medications for his condition.On discharge the boy is prescribed an additional drug that acts by inhibiting a transcription factor required for the synthesis of inflammatory mediators such as tumor necrosis factor-α. Which of the following is a potential adverse effect of the newly prescribed drug if used chronically?",
"options": {
"A": " Cardiotoxicity",
"B": " Headache",
"C": " Oral thrush",
"D": " Tachycardia",
"E": " Tremor"
},
"answer_idx": "C",
"explaination": [
"This child presented with symptoms consistent with an asthma exacerbation. He was likely prescribed an inhaled corticosteroid (eg, beclomethasone), which acts by inactivating nuclear factor-κB. However, the immune-modulating properties of inhaled steroids also attenuate the local immune response of the oropharynx and upper airways to the extent that oral thrush can develop (shown in the image). Children are especially vulnerable to this.",
"A is not correct. 9% chose this. The methylxanthines (eg, theophylline) are sometimes used in asthma prophylaxis. They work by inhibiting phosphodiesterase, inhibiting the hydrolysis of cAMP. Adverse effects of chronic therapy may include cardiotoxicity and neurotoxicity. Cardiotoxicity is not a common adverse effect of inhaled corticosteroid therapy, which this child likely received.",
"B is not correct. 6% chose this. Zileuton is a lipoxygenase inhibitor that is used to manage asthma by preventing leukotriene production; it has no effect on tumor necrosis factor-α. As many as 25% of patients using this drug experience headache.Headache is not a common adverse effect of chronic inhaled corticosteroid use.",
"D is not correct. 7% chose this. Tachycardia may result from the use of nonspecific β-agonists, but would not be expected to occur in thesetting of chronic inhaled corticosteroid therapy.",
"E is not correct. 5% chose this. Long-acting β2-agonists (eg, salmeterol) are another prophylactic treatment for chronic asthma. Adverse effects associated with these agents include tremor and arrhythmia."
],
"bottom_line": "Bottom Line: Inhaled corticosteroids are an established therapy for chronic asthma, but their use may attenuate local immune defenses, predisposing patients, particularly children, to oral thrush.",
"total_id": 425,
"type": "Pulmonary"
},
"question": " Which of the following is a potential adverse effect of the newly prescribed drug if used chronically?",
"gpt_extract_mdeical_info": "1. Patient age: 7 years old.\n2. Patient gender: Not mentioned.\n3. Chief complaint: Acute onset cough, dyspnea, and wheezing.\n4. Frequency of presentation: Third time in 1 month.\n5. Treatment response: Symptoms improve with administration of a short-acting inhaled β2-agonist.\n6. Home medication: Short-acting inhaled β2-agonist.\n7. Current medication: An additional drug that inhibits a transcription factor required for the synthesis of inflammatory mediators such as tumor necrosis factor-α. \n8. History of medications: None mentioned. \n9. Medical history: None mentioned.\n10. Family history: None mentioned.",
"medical_info_list": {
"Patient age": "7 years old.",
"Patient gender": "Not mentioned.",
"Chief complaint": "Acute onset cough, dyspnea, and wheezing.",
"Frequency of presentation": "Third time in 1 month.",
"Treatment response": "Symptoms improve with administration of a short-acting inhaled β2-agonist.",
"Home medication": "Short-acting inhaled β2-agonist.",
"Current medication": "An additional drug that inhibits a transcription factor required for the synthesis of inflammatory mediators such as tumor necrosis factor-α.",
"History of medications": "None mentioned.",
"Medical history": "None mentioned.",
"Family history": "None mentioned."
},
"dataset": "QMAX",
"id": 14,
"history": [
{
"doctor": "Hello, I'm your doctor. How can I help you today?",
"state": "O",
"patient": "I keep having episodes of coughing, difficulty breathing, and wheezing that get better when I use my inhaler."
}
]
},
{
"raw_data": {
"id": 67,
"question": "A 36-year-old woman presents to her physician because she believes she might be pregnant. She has not had her period for 3 months and has noticed a milky discharge from her breasts. Results of a pregnancy test are negative. This woman's symptoms would most likely be an adverse effect of which of the following drugs?",
"options": {
"A": " Bromocriptine",
"B": " Bupropion",
"C": " Fluoxetine",
"D": " Haloperidol",
"E": " Lithium"
},
"answer_idx": "D",
"explaination": [
"The correct answer is D. 48% chose this. The woman is suffering from symptoms of hyperprolactinemia. While this can be caused by a pituitary adenoma, it can also be a adverse effect of some medications. Prolactin secretion is normally inhibited by dopamine, therefore drugs that suppress dopamine's effects can result in elevated levels of prolactin. Haloperidol is a typical antipsychotic that is a dopamine antagonist, and taking it can result in the symptoms described in the stem.",
"A is not correct. 22% chose this. Bromocriptine is a dopamine receptor agonist. It is used in the treatment of hyperprolactinemia.",
"B is not correct. 9% chose this. Bupropion is a serotonin and dopamine reuptake inhibitor that is used in the treatment of depression, and also to aid in smoking cessation. It does not have the adverse effect of hyperprolactinemia.",
"C is not correct. 10% chose this. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used to treat depression. Its adverse effects include insomnia and sexual dysfunction. It does not cause hyperprolactinemia.",
"E is not correct. 11% chose this. Lithium is used as a mood stabilizer in the treatment of bipolar disorder. Its mechanism of action is unknown. Its adverse effects include hypothyroidism, tremor, renal dysfunction, and diabetes insipidus. It does not cause hyperprolactinemia."
],
"bottom_line": "Bottom Line: In females, hyperprolactinemia manifests as galactorrhea and amenorrhea with a negative pregnancy test. Prolactin secretion is normally inhibited by dopamine, therefore dopamine antagonists such as antipsychotic medications can result in symptoms of hyperprolactinemia.",
"total_id": 323,
"type": "Endocrine"
},
"question": " This woman's symptoms would most likely be an adverse effect of which of the following drugs?",
"gpt_extract_mdeical_info": "1. Patient's gender: female.\n2. Patient's age: 36 years old.\n3. Reason for visit: the patient believes she might be pregnant due to absence of period for 3 months and milky discharge from her breasts.\n4. Pregnancy test result: negative.",
"medical_info_list": {
"Patient's gender": "female.",
"Patient's age": "36 years old.",
"Reason for visit": "the patient believes she might be pregnant due to absence of period for 3 months and milky discharge from her breasts.",
"Pregnancy test result": "negative."
},
"dataset": "QMAX",
"id": 15,
"history": [
{
"doctor": "Hello, I'm your doctor. How can I help you today?",
"state": "O",
"patient": "I believe I might be pregnant because I haven't had my period for 3 months and I've noticed a milky discharge from my breasts."
}
]
},
{
"raw_data": {
"id": 84,
"question": "A 57-year-old man undergoes cavernosography, a radiographic examination that shows the corpora cavernosa and draining veins after injection of contrast into the corpora. The test demonstrates a leak from the dorsal vein to the saphenous vein.Which of the following was the most likely indication for this patient's cavernosography?",
"options": {
"A": " Erectile dysfunction",
"B": " Penile cancer",
"C": " Priapism",
"D": " Urinary incontinence",
"E": " Urinary retention"
},
"answer_idx": "A",
"explaination": [
"The correct answer is A. 68% chose this. A leak into the dorsal (shown in the image) and saphenous (not shown in the image) veins, whichdemonstrates a venous outflow abnormality, is typically due to insufficient relaxation of the smooth muscle resulting from excessive adrenergic tone or damaged parasympathetic innervation. In a normal erection, blood flow accelerates, increasing the pressure within the intracavernous spaces and blocking penile venous outflow. Abnormalities in venous outflow, such as the leak from the dorsal vein to the external pudendal veins, a tributary of the great saphenous vein, in this patient can result in failure to acquire or maintain a firm erection.",
"B is not correct. 5% chose this. Penile cancer is rare in developed countries. It is generally a squamous cell carcinoma and is diagnosed by biopsy. Abnormalities in venous blood flow are not normally found in cancer.",
"C is not correct. 17% chose this. Priapism is a condition in which a penile erection is maintained for >4 hours. It is a medical emergency with many causes, including sickle cell disease, spinal cord lesions, and pharmacologic adverse effects. A leak from the dorsal vein to the saphenous vein would result in failure to acquire or maintain an erection, not failure to return to the flaccid state.",
"D is not correct. 5% chose this. Urinary incontinence is a common problem, especially in older persons. Causes include detrusor overactivity and neurologic impairment. Abnormal penile blood flow is not normally implicated in urinary incontinence.",
"E is not correct. 5% chose this. Urinary retention has a number of causes, including outflow obstruction (as seen in benign prostatic hyperplasia) and neurologic impairment. Abnormal penile blood flow is not normally implicated in urinary dysfunction."
],
"bottom_line": "Bottom Line: A penile venous outflow abnormality (such as a leak from the dorsal to the saphenous vein) can result in erectile dysfunction, with a failure to acquire or maintain a firm erection.",
"total_id": 219,
"type": "Reproductive"
},
"question": "Which of the following was the most likely indication for this patient's cavernosography?",
"gpt_extract_mdeical_info": "1. Patient's age: 57 years old.\n2. Patient's gender: Male.\n3. Medical test undergone: Cavernosography.\n4. Result of cavernosography: Demonstrated a leak from the dorsal vein to the saphenous vein.",
"medical_info_list": {
"Patient's age": "57 years old.",
"Patient's gender": "Male.",
"Medical test undergone": "Cavernosography.",
"Result of cavernosography": "Demonstrated a leak from the dorsal vein to the saphenous vein."
},
"dataset": "QMAX",
"id": 16,
"history": [
{
"doctor": "Hello, I'm your doctor. How can I help you today?",
"state": "O",
"patient": "I've been having issues with my erections that prompted the doctor to order a special imaging test."
}
]
},
{
"raw_data": {
"id": 16,
"question": "A 25-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician. On review of symptoms she describes less than a teaspoon of thick white vaginal discharge daily. Vaginal pH is 4.0. Saline microscopy of scant discharge found at the external os identifies epithelial cells with scarce polymorphonuclear leukocytes. What is the best description of this woman's clinical findings?",
"options": {
"A": " Bacterial vaginosis",
"B": " Endometrial cancer",
"C": " Normal",
"D": " Trichomoniasis",
"E": " Vulvovaginal candidiasis"
},
"answer_idx": "C",
"explaination": [
"The correct answer is C. 34% chose this. Normal vaginal pH is 4.0-4.5. Women normally have 1-4 mL of clear to white to yellowish, mostly odorless vaginal discharge (\"physiologic leukorrhea\") daily. Not all discharge is pathologic.",
"A is not correct. 21% chose this. Think bacterial vaginosis when the patient presents with foul-smelling discharge, no complaint of painful intercourse (dyspareunia), and elevated pH but not commonly as high as in trichomoniasis. Also look for clue cells, vaginal epithelial cells covered with coccobacilli. Bacterial vaginosis occurs when a reduction in vaginal lactobacilli allows for an increase in other organisms; Gardnerella vaginalis often is involved.",
"B is not correct. 5% chose this. Endometrial cancer usually occurs in postmenopausal women in their 60s. More than 90% present with abnormal uterine bleeding.",
"D is not correct. 11% chose this. Trichomoniasis is a common cause of vaginal discharge. Expect a foul-smelling, purulent discharge, acomplaint of painful intercourse, and pH of 5.0-6.0. Microscopy identifies numerous polymorphonuclear leukocytes and motile flagellated parasites. Usual outpatient treatment is with metronidazole.",
"E is not correct. 29% chose this. Think candidiasis when a patient complains of intense vulvovaginal itchiness (pruritus). Expect a normal pH and look for pseudohyphae on wet mount with 10% potassium hydroxide."
],
"bottom_line": "Bottom Line: Women normally have 1-4 mL of clear to white to yellowish, mostly odorless vaginal discharge (\"physiologic leukorrhea\") daily.",
"total_id": 161,
"type": "Reproductive"
},
"question": " What is the best description of this woman's clinical findings?",
"gpt_extract_mdeical_info": "1. Patient's age: 25 years old.\n2. Patient's gender: Female.\n3. Chief complaint: Less than a teaspoon of thick white vaginal discharge daily.\n4. Vaginal pH: 4.0.\n5. Saline microscopy: Scant discharge found at the external os with epithelial cells and scarce polymorphonuclear leukocytes.",
"medical_info_list": {
"Patient's age": "25 years old.",
"Patient's gender": "Female.",
"Chief complaint": "Less than a teaspoon of thick white vaginal discharge daily.",
"Vaginal pH": "4.0.",
"Saline microscopy": "Scant discharge found at the external os with epithelial cells and scarce polymorphonuclear leukocytes."
},
"dataset": "QMAX",
"id": 17,
"history": [
{
"doctor": "Hello, I'm your doctor. How can I help you today?",
"state": "O",
"patient": "I've been experiencing a small amount of thick white vaginal discharge every day."
}
]
},
{
"raw_data": {
"id": 43,
"question": "A 56-year-old obese man with unknown medical history presents to the emergency department. He was found by his wife on the floor of the bathroom, conscious but disoriented, vomiting, and clutching his abdomen. She is unsure of the name of his one oral medication, but knows he takes it regularly, twice daily. He was recently admitted to another hospital for a cholecystectomy. On examination, the patient is breathing heavily and quickly, but other vital signs are normal. Laboratory test results include: Laboratory tests show: Na+: 142 mEq/L K+: 4.0 mEq/L Cl-: 105 mEq/L HCO3-: 19 mEq/L Blood urea nitrogen: 20 mg/dL Creatinine: 1.6 mg/dL Glucose: 256 mg/dL What drug is the patient most likely taking?",
"options": {
"A": " Glyburide ",
"B": "Insulin",
"C": " Metformin",
"D": " Orlistat",
"E": " Rosiglitazone"
},
"answer_idx": "C",
"explaination": [
"The correct answer is C. 58% chose this. Given the patient's body habitus and glucose level, a diagnosis of diabetes is extremely likely. The patient is presenting after recent surgery with symptoms consistent with lactic acidosis. His low bicarbonate is concerning for an acidotic state. Calculating the anion gap [Na - (Cl + HCO3-) = anion gap] gives a result of 18. The physiologic range of the anion gap in healthy adults is 8-12 mEq/L. High-anion-gap metabolic acidosis can be caused by multiple conditions and can be remembered by the mnemonic MUDPILES: Methanol, Uremia, Diabetic ketoacidosis, Paraldehyde, Infection or isoniazid, Lactic acidosis, Ethylene glycol, and Salicylates. Metformin is a biguanide that suppresses hepatic glucose production, decreases intestinal absorption of glucose, and improves insulin sensitivity. It is known to increase the risk of lactic acidosis, particularly in those with renal impairment (the patient in this case has an elevated creatinine of 1.6 mg/dL), as well as in the postoperative period if it is stopped for an extended period.",
"A is not correct. 13% chose this. Glyburide is a sulfonylurea that increases pancreatic secretion of insulin by depolarizing the β-cell membranes. Its major adverse effect is hypoglycemia, which could present as loss of consciousness, seizure, or altered mental status. However, the patient's lab values show that he is actually hyperglycemic, making glyburide less likely.",
"B is not correct. 8% chose this. Insulin as a pharmacologic preparation is not administered orally, but rather is subcutaneously injected. It binds the insulin receptor to increase hepatic glycogen production from glucose and promote protein synthesis in muscle. A major adverse effect of insulin treatment is hypoglycemia, weight gain, and injection-site lipodystrophy, but it is not associated with lactic acidosis.",
"D is not correct. 10% chose this. Orlistat alters fat metabolism by decreasing pancreatic lipase activity. It is often used for long-term weight management, and causes gastrointestinal adverse effects, such as loose and fatty stools (steatorrhea), diminished absorption of vitamins A, D, K, and E, and headache. It has not been associated with lactic acidosis.",
"E is not correct. 11% chose this. Rosiglitazone is a thiazolidinedione that increases tissue sensitivity/target cell response to insulin. A major adverse effect of this medication is weight gain and edema, and it has also recently been associated with increased cardiovascular risks. However, it is not known to cause lactic acidosis."
],
"bottom_line": "Bottom Line: Lactic acidosis is a life-threatening condition that may affect those on metformin. Remember that high-anion-gap metabolic acidosis may have several causes that are summarized in the mnemonic MUDPILES.",
"total_id": 307,
"type": "Endocrine"
},
"question": "6 mg/dL Glucose: 256 mg/dL What drug is the patient most likely taking?",
"gpt_extract_mdeical_info": "1. Patient's age: 56 years old.\n2. Patient's gender: male.\n3. Patient's medical history: unknown.\n4. Chief complaint: found on the floor of the bathroom, conscious but disoriented, vomiting, and clutching his abdomen.\n5. Patient's medication: Takes one oral medication twice daily but its name is unknown.\n6. Patient's surgical history: Recently admitted to another hospital for a cholecystectomy.\n7. Vital signs:\n - Breathing heavily and quickly but no other abnormalities.\n8. Laboratory test results:\n - Na+ (sodium): 142 mEq/L\n - K+ (potassium): 4.0 mEq/L\n - Cl- (chloride): 105 mEq/L\n - HCO3- (bicarbonate): 19 mEq/L\n - Blood urea nitrogen: 20 mg/dL\n - Creatinine: 1",
"medical_info_list": {
"Patient's age": "56 years old.",
"Patient's gender": "male.",
"Patient's medical history": "unknown.",
"Chief complaint": "found on the floor of the bathroom, conscious but disoriented, vomiting, and clutching his abdomen.",
"Patient's medication": "Takes one oral medication twice daily but its name is unknown.",
"Patient's surgical history": "Recently admitted to another hospital for a cholecystectomy.",
"Vital signs": "Breathing heavily and quickly but no other abnormalities.",
"Na+ (sodium)": "142 mEq/L",
"K+ (potassium)": "4.0 mEq/L",
"Cl- (chloride)": "105 mEq/L",
"HCO- (bicarbonate)": "19 mEq/L",
"Blood urea nitrogen": "20 mg/dL",
"Creatinine": "1"
},
"dataset": "QMAX",
"id": 18,
"history": [
{
"doctor": "Hello, I'm your doctor. How can I help you today?",
"state": "O",
"patient": "I'm feeling disoriented, have been vomiting, and am experiencing abdominal pain."
}
]
},
{
"raw_data": {
"id": 41,
"question": "A 23-year-old woman presents to the emergency department complaining of severe, bilateral, lower abdominal pain. Her last menstrual cycle was 8 weeks ago. Her blood pressure is 90/46 mm Hg. Physical examination reveals guarding and severe rebound tenderness. Vaginal ultrasound reveals an empty uterus.Trending a certain hormone is key in identifying this patient's diagnosis. This hormone shares a common subunit with which of the following molecules?",
"options": {
"A": " ACTH",
"B": " ADH",
"C": " Melanocyte-releasing hormone",
"D": " Thyroid-stimulating hormone",
"E": " Thyrotropin-releasing hormone"
},
"answer_idx": "D",
"explaination": [
"The correct answer is D. 71% chose this. This patient's history of a missed menstrual cycle suggests that she may be pregnant. However, ultrasound reveals an empty uterus. One of the most important concerns in a young woman of reproductive age who presents with acute, severe abdominal pain is ectopic pregnancy. The physical examination findings of abdominal pain with tenderness and rebound suggest peritoneal irritation, in this case most likely from a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. This process could also produce significant bleeding into the peritoneal cavity, leading to hypotension. A pregnancy test, which detects the hormone β-human chorionic gonadotropin (βhCG), either in the urine or in the plasma 8 days after successful fertilization, will be positive. β-hCG is a glycoprotein produced by the fertilized dividing egg during the first trimester, and later by the placenta. This hormone's main function is to maintain the corpus luteum, the main source of progesterone, which is critical in maintaining the pregnancy. It also tends to be trended upward throughout initial days of pregnancy. βhCG has a distinctive α subunit, which it shares with other glycoprotein hormones, including thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, and follicle-stimulating hormone. All of the glycoproteins with the exception of β-hCG are produced in the anterior pituitary gland.",
"A is not correct. 10% chose this. ACTH is produced by the anterior pituitary gland from the precursor molecule proopiomelanocortin. It stimulates the production and secretion of adrenal cortical hormones. It does not share any structural homology to the glycoproteins.",
"B is not correct. 5% chose this. ADH or vasopressin is a hormone synthesized in the hypothalamus but secreted from the posterior pituitary gland. Volume depletion and increased plasma osmolality stimulate its secretion. It promotes the insertion of aquaporin channels into the renal collecting ducts, thus augmenting free water reabsorption.",
"C is not correct. 7% chose this. Melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) is another product of the precursor proopiomelanocortin. It is believed that this molecule is increased along with ACTH in patients with primary adrenal insufficiency, accounting for the darkening and discoloration of the skin commonly observed in those individuals. MSHdoes not share any structural homology with the glycoproteins.",
"E is not correct. 7% chose this. Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) is produced in the hypothalamus. It stimulates the synthesis and release of TSH from the anterior pituitary gland. TRH also stimulates the release of prolactin from the anterior pituitary gland. TRH does not share any structural homology with the glycoproteins."
],
"bottom_line": "Bottom Line: Always consider an ectopic pregnancy in a young woman of reproductive age who presents with acute-onset abdominal pain, with or without rebound tenderness. In an ectopic pregnancy the β-hCG level will be elevated on urine or plasma pregnancy testing.",
"total_id": 183,
"type": "Reproductive"
},
"question": " This hormone shares a common subunit with which of the following molecules?",
"gpt_extract_mdeical_info": "1. Patient's age: 23 years old.\n2. Patient's gender: female.\n3. Chief complaint: severe, bilateral, lower abdominal pain.\n4. Menstrual history: last menstrual cycle was 8 weeks ago.\n5. Blood pressure: 90/46 mm Hg.\n6. Physical examination findings: guarding and severe rebound tenderness.\n7. Imaging result: Vaginal ultrasound revealed an empty uterus.\n8. Key hormone for diagnosis: Not specified in the given question.",
"medical_info_list": {
"Patient's age": "23 years old.",
"Patient's gender": "female.",
"Chief complaint": "severe, bilateral, lower abdominal pain.",
"Menstrual history": "last menstrual cycle was 8 weeks ago.",
"Blood pressure": "90/46 mm Hg.",
"Physical examination findings": "guarding and severe rebound tenderness.",
"Imaging result": "Vaginal ultrasound revealed an empty uterus.",
"Key hormone for diagnosis": "Not specified in the given question."
},
"dataset": "QMAX",
"id": 19,
"history": [
{
"doctor": "Hello, I'm your doctor. How can I help you today?",
"state": "O",
"patient": "I've been experiencing severe pain in my lower abdomen and I haven't had my period for 8 weeks."
}
]
},
{
"raw_data": {
"id": 98,
"question": "During a routine visit to his primary care physician, a 55-year-old man with a history of radiation to his neck for lymphoma as a young man is found to have a singular thyroid nodule. Work-up suggests the nodule to be neoplastic. A section of resected tissue is\nWhat type of thyroid malignancy has this patient developed?",
"options": {
"A": " Anaplastic carcinoma",
"B": " Follicular carcinoma of the thyroid",
"C": " Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid",
"D": " Papillary carcinoma",
"E": " Thyroid lymphoma"
},
"answer_idx": "D",
"explaination": [
"The correct answer is D. 61% chose this. The patient has papillary adenocarcinoma of the thyroid, which accounts for approximately 80% of thyroid carcinomas. Papillary thyroid carcinoma usually can be cured by resection of the primary tumor. Diagnosis is often made by fine-needle biopsy. The histologic finding in the image is a psammoma body (a concentrically laminated, calcified structure), which is found in approximately 50% of papillary adenocarcinomas of the thyroid. Psammoma bodies are also found in serous papillary cystadenocarcinomas of the ovary, meningiomas, and malignant mesotheliomas.",
"A is not correct. 7% chose this. Anaplastic carcinoma is a poorly differentiated and aggressive type of thyroid cancer with a poor prognosis. Psammoma bodies are not seen.",
"B is not correct. 14% chose this. Follicular carcinomas of the thyroid are less common but more malignant than papillary carcinomas of the thyroid. Unlike papillary carcinoma, in which hematogenous metastasis is rare, follicular carcinomas commonly metastasize via the blood to lungs or bones. Histologically, follicular carcinomas tend to form acini or follicles lined with cells that are larger than those found in normal thyroid. Psammoma bodies are not found in follicular carcinoma.",
"C is not correct. 16% chose this. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid arises from the C cells of the thyroid, which produce calcitonin. It is a rare cancer of the thyroid and can be associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) types 2A and 2B. Histologic examination of a medullary carcinoma would reveal sheets of tumor cells in an amyloid stroma. Psammoma bodies are not found in these tumors.",
"E is not correct. 2% chose this. Thyroid lymphomas often arise in the setting of Hashimoto thyroiditis, but would not have a psammoma body."
],
"bottom_line": "Bottom Line: Remember PSaMMoma bodies: Papillary thyroid, Serous ovary, Meningioma, and Mesothelioma.",
"total_id": 350,
"type": "Endocrine"
},
"question": " A section of resected tissue is\nWhat type of thyroid malignancy has this patient developed?",
"gpt_extract_mdeical_info": "1. Patient age: 55 years old.\n2. Patient gender: Male.\n3. Medical history: the patient had lymphoma in the past and received radiation treatment to the neck as a young man.\n4. Current diagnosis: neoplastic thyroid nodule.\n5. Work-up has been done and confirms the neoplastic nature of the nodule.",
"medical_info_list": {
"Patient age": "55 years old.",
"Patient gender": "Male.",
"Medical history": "the patient had lymphoma in the past and received radiation treatment to the neck as a young man.",
"Current diagnosis": "neoplastic thyroid nodule.",
"info_1": "Work-up has been done and confirms the neoplastic nature of the nodule."
},
"dataset": "QMAX",
"id": 20,
"history": [
{
"doctor": "Hello, I'm your doctor. How can I help you today?",
"state": "O",
"patient": "I noticed a lump in my neck during a routine check-up."
}
]
},
{
"raw_data": {
"id": 22,
"question": "A 47-year-old woman presents to her physician complaining of weight gain, fatigue, and lethargy. Her appetite has decreased recently and she has been constipated. Physical examination reveals an enlarged, symmetric, and firm thyroid. A thyroid biopsy is significant for a lymphocytic and plasma cell infiltrate with occasional germinal center formation. The follicles contain little colloid, and the follicular epithelial lining shows enlarged epithelial cells containing acidophilic cytoplasm. Which of the following antibodies is most likely to be found in this patient?",
"options": {
"A": " Anti-smooth muscle",
"B": " Anti-TPO antibodies ",
"C": " Anti-U1 RNP ",
"D": "Anticentromere",
"E": " Antimitochondrial"
},
"answer_idx": "B",
"explaination": [
"The correct answer is B. 75% chose this.",
"The patient is suffering from Hashimoto thyroiditis, an autoimmune disorder that is a common cause of hypothyroidism. Other classic signs and symptoms of hypothyroidism include cold intolerance, hypoactivity, weakness, diminished reflexes, dry and cool skin, and coarse hair. Laboratory studies would reveal increased thyroid-stimulating hormone levels (the most sensitive laboratory test for primary hypothyroidism) and decreased total triiodothyronine and thyroxine levels. In patients with Hashimoto thyroiditis, the thyroid gland is usually goitrous and firm, and histology reveals a significant lymphocyte and plasma cell infiltrate (as shown in the image) with germinal center formation, colloid-sparse follicles, and Hürthle cells (the acidophilic cells described in the vignette). Patients with Hashimoto thyroiditis frequently have a personal or family history of autoimmune disease, and there is an increased incidence of in the disease among individuals with HLA-DR5 and -B5 haplotypes. Antithyroid peroxidase antibodies (anti-TPO), are associated with Hashimoto thyroiditis. Antithyroglobulin antibodies may also be seen.",
"A is not correct. 4% chose this. Anti-smooth muscle antibodies may be seen in the setting of autoimmune hepatitis.",
"C is not correct. 6% chose this. Anti-U1 RNP antibodies are associated with mixed connective tissue disease.",
"D is not correct. 5% chose this. Anticentromere antibodies are associated with CREST syndrome.",
"E is not correct. 10% chose this. Antimitochondrial antibodies are associated with primary biliary cirrhosis."
],
"bottom_line": "Bottom Line: Hashimoto thyroiditis is an autoimmune cause of hypothyroidism in which there may be elaboration of antithyroid peroxidase antibodies (anti-TPO) and/or antithyroglobulin antibodies.",
"total_id": 289,
"type": "Endocrine"
},
"question": " Which of the following antibodies is most likely to be found in this patient?",
"gpt_extract_mdeical_info": "1. Patient's age: 47 years old.\n2. Patient's gender: female.\n3. Chief complaint: weight gain, fatigue, and lethargy.\n4. Appetite has decreased recently.\n5. Patient has been constipated.\n6. Physical examination findings:\n 1. Thyroid is enlarged.\n 2. Thyroid enlargement is symmetric and firm.\n7. Thyroid biopsy results:\n 1. Lymphocytic and plasma cell infiltrate present.\n 2. Germinal center formation occasionally present.\n 3. Follicles contain little colloid.\n 4. Follicular epithelial lining shows enlarged epithelial cells containing acidophilic cytoplasm.",
"medical_info_list": {
"Patient's age": "47 years old.",
"Patient's gender": "female.",
"Chief complaint": "weight gain, fatigue, and lethargy.",
"info_1": "Patient has been constipated.",
"Physical examination findings": "Thyroid is enlarged. Thyroid enlargement is symmetric and firm.",
"Thyroid biopsy results": "Lymphocytic and plasma cell infiltrate present. Germinal center formation occasionally present. Follicles contain little colloid. Follicular epithelial lining shows enlarged epithelial cells containing acidophilic cytoplasm."
},
"dataset": "QMAX",
"id": 21,
"history": [
{
"doctor": "Hello, I'm your doctor. How can I help you today?",
"state": "O",
"patient": "I've been feeling tired and lethargic, and I've noticed I'm gaining weight despite having less appetite, and I'm also experiencing constipation."
}
]
},
{
"raw_data": {
"id": 149,
"question": "A 52-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe substernal chest pain radiating to his left arm, together with diaphoresis and dyspnea. He reports that he has never experienced this kind of pain before, that it came on very suddenly about 30 minutes ago, and that he was not doing anything particularly strenuous. His blood pressure is 137/87 mm Hg, his pulse is 96/min, and his respiratory rate is 24/min. An ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads V3-V6. While in the emergency department he goes into cardiac arrest, and efforts to resuscitate him are unsuccessful. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's death?",
"options": {
"A": " Arrhythmia",
"B": " Cardiogenic shock",
"C": " Congestive heart failure",
"D": " Fibrinous pericarditis",
"E": " Left ventricular rupture"
},
"answer_idx": "A",
"explaination": [
"The correct answer is A. 67% chose this. This individual is having a myocardial infarction (likely anterolateral given V3-V6 distribution), as suggested by his symptoms and ST-segment elevation on ECG. Sudden cardiac death in the setting of an MI is most commonly caused by ventricular tachyarrhythmias, in particular ventricular fibrillation (VF). These arrhythmias are thought to be a result of the damaged, ischemic myocardium producing a substrate that is capable of abnormal reentry circuits. This results in the loss of coordinated contraction of the heart and perfusion of vital organs. VF is almost universally lethal if not treated; it very rarely reverts spontaneously to sinus rhythm. Immediate defibrillation is indicated, followed by medical treatment with intravenous amiodarone.",
"B is not correct. 16% chose this. Cardiogenic shock carries a high risk of mortality and is associated with a large infarct. Any type of shock results in inadequate organ perfusion. Patients with cardiogenic shock present with hypotension and tachycardia.",
"C is not correct. 5% chose this. Congestive heart failure (CHF) is a later sequela of an MI that affects a large area of myocardial tissue. It results from functional myocardium being replaced with nonfunctional scar tissue, decreasing the heart's ability to contract, and leading to decreased ejection fraction. CHF would not present this soon after an MI.",